Islam and Democracy

Submitted by Safraz (United States), Dec 31, 2006 at 03:01

I have actually studied the sharia and its evolution throughout history, so to call me a liar isn't appreciiated. Much like the U.S. Constitution, it changes depending on the interpreter and the society - it is a living, breathing, code if you wil. To argue that there is one sharia, is disingenuous. Perhaps we disagree - but let's leave it at that.,

That sharia has not been implemented without slavery is untrue. Iran is an example. Furthermore, the jihad in most sharia systems is a war of self defence - much like the U.N. Charter permits wars of self defence.

And Islam is compatible with democracy - again Iran - without the religious governing council, we would have a full republican democracy in Iran, with an elected president and legislature and an independent judiciary. Again, I stress, without the governing council.

What about the problem of God's law being superior to man made law (hence the justification for the governing council)? Well isn't the Muslim community as a whole the best interpreter of God's law? Isn't this the example of the Prophet? Therefore the elected legislature - the people - can decide if they are within the bounds of God's law. The original Muslim community in Medina, was in many ways governed by consensus of the community - a form of demoracy.

And what about the harsh Koranic criminal codes? Modes of interpretation. The Koran was revealed to the Muslim community in the 7th century as timeless EXAMPLE. Not a code to be followed throughout time, but as an example to be followed by analogy to present day circumstances. The doctrine of ij-tihad, if you will.

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