correction, sara

Submitted by Taj (United States), Sep 7, 2008 at 06:07

sara:

unfortunately it seems you relied solely on internet definitions of taqiyah (yours is word-for-word identical to wikipedia's)

to assert that taqiyah started with the shia - a sect that did not emerge until after Muhammad's death, and prove this premise by asserting that they did so by adopting a quranic verse that not indeed is contemporary to Muhammad that literally explains taqiya indicates not only your unfamiliarity with Islam but a lack of noticing a temporal flaw in your assertion.

If you read tafsir of the Quran then you realize the first instance of taqiyah is found by the context of the verse - it addressed the plight of Ammar bin Yasir...his father and mother were tortured and his mother Sumayya, was the first martyr of Islam, having been impaled thru her vagina with as spear...witnessing this atrocity caused Ammar to invoke Hubal, a pagan god in deference to Allah. Later he asked Muhammad as to whether he sinned - as a response this verse (16:106 )was revealed.

That shia practice taqiyah as a tenet was launched as a stereotypical and phobic accusation against them by early sunni factions and is sadly and inaccurately continued today, as in your assertion. However, it is clear that shia don't view taqiya any different in application than sunnis do.

This, of course, in additon to the fact that a supposed shia-do-taqiyah claim has nothing to do with Obama, who has no shia background...(you'll notice the article you take your definition taqiyah from notes that sunnis frown on the concept of taqiyah as opposed to asserting that shia generally practice it)

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