why is this so different than other historical resettling?

Submitted by stanley b (United States), Jun 7, 2012 at 14:14

This is such an important issue and is critical to de-fanging the perpetual story telling about the Palestinians. if one accepts that there were refugees who were forced to flee their homes in the run up to the 1948 war of independence (and the fact that it was the Arab countries who instructed them to leave is a major point to address), then why would these people be considered any differently than the people who have been displaced by war from time immemorial? this is not the first case of refugees resulting from a war situation. think of the footage of Vietnamese trudging along the roads with their belongings, the Koreans, not to mention the Jews in Arab countries who were banished with nothing but the clothes on their backs; so many upheavals and resettling. yet no officials scream for justice. it is a part of war, the fallout. people are forced to move and resettle elsewhere. someone should do a study on how many times this has happened in history and what the outcome has been

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