An Answer to Help Understand the Judeo-Christianity Connection

Submitted by M. Tovey (United States), Jun 14, 2012 at 19:25

The problem here is that even as it was at the time of the Islamic Prophet's utterances, the 'Christian' community had lost its true course of obedience to the Gospel so that the true witness of Jesus Christ was cloaked in the religiosity of the time. From then and even now, going to check with a 'priest' (suspect it was a Catholic) does not get the appropriate answer.

To start, you do not ask a silly question as it concerns your mortal soul. But your question is phrased wrong to start; so the answer directly is that a Christian does not serve the Jewish person by obligation in the human sense, but by being obedient to the command of Jesus Christ; love thy neighbor, thy enemy, whomever as Christ has loved you. His death on the cross and His subsequent resurrection, though by the insistence of the Jewish rulers directed at the Roman administration, was planned for in the Torah, Neviim and the Kethuvim and was executed as witnessed in the New Testament.

For a Christian to 'become a Jew' is antithetical and a reversionary process that does not obey the Scripture; indeed it is contradictory. While 'salvation is of the Jews' (quoting Jesus Christ), its prophetic implication is fulfilled in believing in Jesus Christ in faith, thereby being completed with the infilling of the Holy Spirit, a process that cannot be humanly reversed once accomplished. Once His always His is His promise to those who receive Him in faith.

Now, having said that, why do Christians make so much of supporting Israel and the Jewish people? Because, if Christians are to honor the WORD of the LORD as it relates to Israel, giving aid to Israel and praying for the peace of Jerusalem are Scriptural and in the love we are supposed to have for the Jewish people, we honor the WORD of the LORD by being obedient to it. It is an outgoing of His love He has for us.

Questions?

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