Why do you quote a corrupted book to prove a point?

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Feb 1, 2014 at 10:09

Our dear Abdul whose Hindu ancestors were brutalized by Islam wrote this little gem

So Christianity is the faith that for the salvation of man kind, but it missed the cananites. "Cursed be Canaan! The lowest of slaves will he be to his brothers. He also said, 'Blessed be the Lord, the God of Shem! May Canaan be the slave of Shem. May God extend the territory of Japheth; may Japeth live in the tents of Shem and may Canaan be his slave'. Genesis 9:25-2

But our dear Abdul your so called Allah says that the Jews and Christians حرفوا الكتاب المقدس oh حرفوا الكتاب المقدس? But you can ask your stupid Mullah to tell you what it means if he knows Arabic

So you tell me يا ايها العبقري الكبير why do you quote a كتاب محرف or corrupted book to prove a point you tell me unless you disagree with your Allah so it is one of two things

1. The Bible is a corrupted book and in this case you cannot quote a corrupted book to prove a point

2. Or you disagree with your Allah who says that the Bible is a corrupted book and in this case it would mean that you are saying the Bible is not a corrupted book but in this case I will inform your Arab masters that you disagree with Allah Astaghfirullah and in this case I smell deportation and may be a fatwa

So which one is it 1 or 2?

And I will be waiting for your answer with great anticipation

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