no clear definitions

Submitted by Mohammed Wazir Ahkspaidar (Australia), Feb 8, 2014 at 23:02

@ Abdulkarim Al-habsi

"....But I am asked to be cautious about them, as certain parts of the two holy books are distorted, not corrupted. "

Some questions:

Who asked you to be 'cautious' about them?

Here the difference between 'corrupted' and 'distorted' seems to be merely semantic. The end result is that most muslims do not read the Bible and disregard its most pertinent points.

So what I and many others would like to know is - where i the book written by muslims that goes through the Bible and point out the tracts that are 'distorted' ' and clearly, logically and with evidence based on historical fact outlines why they are distorted?

Surely some erudite muslim must have written such a book in 1400 years. This would be necessary to guide muslims , wouldn't it? Otherwise they'd just be taking any old mufti's advice.

If such a guide was not written , why wasn't it? Wouldn't it be a help to your cause for the worldwide caliphate also? 'Errant' Jews and Christians would be able to see why they were so wrong - and that the child-marrying, murder condoning burak riding Mohammed was right all along.

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