For Sohail and Muslim logic: Why do you quote a "corrupted" book? part trois

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Sep 3, 2006 at 08:30

So my Dear Sohail (RYA) in regard to your quotes from the Bible I'm just repeating the questions that I asked you before ...so here are my questions again:

1. Your Allah says that Jews and Christians corrupted the Bible. Then why are you quoting the Bible a corrupted book as per your Allah? And how can you be sure that the Biblical verses that you are quoting were not corrupted?

2. You know that I know Arabic very well, and if I quote anything from your Allah's Qur'an I quote the primary Arabic source. If you are to qoute the Bible and try to prove a point you must provide the original verse in the original language of the Bible be it Hebrew, Greek, Syriac or Coptic in the case of the gnostic gospels. But wait: you know none of these languages and then you have the audacity to use a translation as translations can be full of mistakes.

Now here is your lesson for today: We are told that when 'A'isha was told that the Qur'an was full of mistakes she replied: "Hadha 3amal al-kuttab 'akhta'oo fil al-kitab (the Qur'an)." Oh I forgot that you know no Arabic but you can consult your ignorant Mullah. So what is sauce for the goose is sauce for the gander my dear Sohail.

3. I do not see the name Muhammad or Abul Qasim or Qutham or even Ahamd in any of these verses. So where do you find your prophet's name in any of these verses?

4. Even if we find the name Muhammad or Qutham or Abul Qasim or even Ahmad in any of these verses how can you be sure that this is the same Muahmmad your prophet that is?

You need to stop (among other things) reading Mr. Naik (only if you know what the Arabic word naik means) nonsense

You are out to spread the religion that brutalized your ancestors: shame.

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