Are Democracy and Secularism really inseparable?

Submitted by Syed Kasim (Canada), Apr 26, 2008 at 17:09

Why do Democracy (election of leaders by public) and Secularism (separation of religion and state) have to be inseparable for the West?

In the west, the dominant religion has no finite set of God's laws. Judaism has finite set of God's laws. But in Christianity as per Jesus the people have a finite set of God's laws as he said in his lifetime on the earth, I did not come to bring new laws but to bring the Jews to the same old track of God's laws of Judaism.

But St. Paul of Tarsus changed/canceled the statement of Jesus. Paul said after the earthly life of Jesus - faith in dogma is the only requirement for salvation and not following the same God's laws of Moses and God's laws of Moses is a curse.

Who is more important for the West - Jesus(Christianity) or Paul(Paulianity).

So if the West prefers Jesus the Christians have to go back to the old laws of Moses(Judaism).

But most of the population prefer Paul's teachings. So the West has to have the man-made laws(Secular hmanism). No finite set of God's laws.

So, Democracy and Secularism are inseparable for the West.

But Islam does not have a figure like St. Paul. So, Islam has a finite set of God's laws which is a refinement of true Judaism of Moses. And Democracy and Secualrism are separate things. Islam/Muslims don't not need Secularism as they don't have confusion in finite set of God's laws. Islam's finite set of God's laws know the existence of people of other faiths.

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