Isaiah 9:6-7

Submitted by slayhy (United Arab Emirates), Dec 3, 2011 at 11:15

I am inclined to agree with the Jewish point of view that this verse is not a reference to Jesus. in fact it may have been mistranslated from Hebrew to Latin to English. I have observed the same with The Quran, some translators tend to change the location of the words and add some more which results in changing the whole purpose and meaning of the phrase.

I am not sure who the Jews refer to to, but God told us that the Jews considered Ezra to be son of god

For me the translation of the english version of Isaiah 9:6 would not be proper without refering to the original text.

but I have question for you if you say Jesus is God and son of God at the same time, does that mean there are two Gods?

below is a very crude way of translating the verse put in mind that it maybe about Jesus

6 - For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

The way I see this is as follows (noting the corruption in original translation) - As for us a child is born (to is extra)

(this child is mighty, in Islam we say Jesus is one of the Great prophets of God)- I don know what is the meaning (to us a son is given) because who gave it to Him, also as I said before the word god is used loosely in Jewish literature, and I gave you examples from the Old Testament in a previous communique, the world everlasting father is confusing, because you do not consider Jesus a Father

Then in verse 7 - The zeal of the LORD Almighty will accomplish this.

so the only way that Jesus can accomplish anything is by the Zeal of the Lord Almighty, which is not Jesus.

the verses are confusing and may not really be aiming at Jesus

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