Isaiah 9:6-7 continuing

Submitted by M. Tovey (United States), Dec 5, 2011 at 14:33

Your inclination to take the Jewish point of view is easily accepted from a humanistic rationalization, not only from a modernized rendition of dismissing the prophetic implication of just exactly what the Prophet Isaiah was communicating; but going back to the time of Jesus' first appearance to the Jewish population in ancient Judea, the rulers of that time were not inclined to accept Jesus' testimony either: thus the crucifixion at the hands of the Romans.

In the decades of studying the Person of Jesus and trying to understand why the very people who should have recognized who Jesus/Yeshua was and did not, varying questions that were given as rationalizations depicting other views were analyzed to determine first of all, noting the parole evidence of the time, how could they not see who Yeshua was? The simple answer was, as it is now – they did not choose to.

Now, as to which translation that may be necessary to come to grips of just exactly what the Prophet Isaiah was delivering, before one gets to the English, who was Isaiah's target audience then; and who is the audience now. And in that, if the Hebrews of the time who were under judgment in the foretelling of their deportation were having a difficult time wondering why Almighty God was predicting their deportation under Nebuchadnezzar, might there not be a hesitation to recognize their sins were the cause and the promises of Almighty God's grace in the future needed to be believed? Thus a question of theirs might be, if we are the children of Abraham, why the judgment?

And further, how does a human mindset grapple with the idea that Almighty God may not understand how it is to be human? But, ahhh, there's the point: if Almighty God assumes a temporary condition of inserting a part of Himself into a form of humanity, even to being obedient as all humans are to death, then is it not logical that Yeshua, the 'Son of God,' does know from eternity what it is to be human, the only difference being that His virgin birth makes Him different in the eyes of a Holy Father requiring a perfect sacrifice in obedience to the promises found in Isaiah?

So, how does one translate that into the thought pattern of humans not necessarily wanting to believe?

Before coming to a saving knowledge of Jesus Christ decades ago, I was at the crossroads, the same as many, not knowing who to trust or knowing where to find out how to trust those things humanly divulged. The simplicity of the situation was to read only those words specifically revealed as being spoken by Yeshua HaMashiach and then applying them to the subsequent passages. When salvation was granted to me in belief of His Words, He, Yeshua, supernaturally began to reveal that which was Truth and which was human doctrine. It is a process that, decades later, is the only way I have been able to gain understanding of the Holy Bible - by asking Him for His wisdom to understand.

Isaiah 9:6 is only a part of the revelation of the Person of Yeshua; all of the prophetic applications of the Messiah must be included to gain the complete appreciation of Who He is – there are a minimum of over three hundred of them- and each are necessary to gain knowledge of Him. Only one or two are necessary, though, to get the introduction – if one really, really, wants to know who Yeshua HaMashiach/Jesus Christ is.

As for your question: is Jesus God and the Son of God at the same time, does that mean there are two gods? Read Isaiah 9:6, read about who came to visit Abraham just before the destruction of Sodom; couple that with the conversation Yeshua had about being before Abraham was , Yeshua declared I AM (YahWeh);then come back to Isaiah 9:6 and read between the lines: who would dare to make such claims in the human sense? It requires supernatural understanding, the kind that only asking Yeshua to explain in His own words can reveal.

And by the way, by your admission, Issah is supposed to be revealed soon: only Isaiah 9:6 can help to explain how, AND why!

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