Why Palestinian Delusions Persist

Submitted by Harvey A. Epstein (United States), Nov 13, 2017 at 11:41

As always, I enjoy your informative articles. As to Jesus being a Palestinian, according to the Koran he was a Muslim as were Moses, Kings David and Solomon, Aaron, Mariam, etc. Jesus lived in a land which became known as Palestine shortly after his death, so without too much of a stretch he could be considered a Palestinian. The only question is: is this the same Jesus who is mentioned in the Gospels or is this the Jesus who existed in the parallel world now espoused by certain Palestinian scholars?

In the eyes of religious Muslims, and not just those people who currently call themselves Palestinians, Jesus is, technically a Palestinian. This has been true since no later than 630 A.D.

As to Jerusalem having always been Islamic, according to the Koran, and understanding the correct historical definition of "Muslim", Jersusalem was at least "Muslim" when the "correct" versions of the Torah and the Gospels were taught. It again became Muslim and Islamic when Omar conquered it @ 638 A.D.

A Muslim, historically, is a person who hears and follows the " correct " word of God, then existing. With this definition in mind, some of the "stuff" we hear coming from Islamists does follow some sort of logic. The question then becomes : does this logic have a factual basis, or is it derived from a post ictal psychchotic event(s) as I contend it does.

I cover this in my yet to be published book. I am still working on it.

Regards

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