Persian and Egyptian languages: Scripts v spoken languages

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Jan 7, 2018 at 09:09

Our dear gato is mixing apples and oranges so here we go again

>Zoroastrian Middle Persian(erroneously called Pahlavi) has been discarded by Muslim Persians as much as islamized Egyptians have discarded Coptic..

Here we go again. You need to learn to read with care. I was comparing SCRIPTS (alphabets) where Pahlavi is a writing system for Persian language derived from Aramaic alphabet and in the case of the Egyptian language you will find the following scripts in order:

1. Hieroglyphs

2. Hieratic or cursive Hieroglyphs

3 Demotic

4. And last in Coptic which is derived from Greek alphabet with 6 extra consonants

So Coptic is not a language it is a script and the language is the Egyptian language

How many times do I have to tell you that Coptic language is a misnomer Coptic is a script

Now do you get it?

> However in the Central Asia the number of Arabic native speakers was much less than in Egypt

Wrong again The Islamic historical tradition tells us that Amr ibn al-'As invaded Egypt with 4000 Arabs v a total population of Egypt at the time between 5-7 million! And historical evidence reveals that the importation of Arabs to Egypt was very limited Check studies of Egyptian DNA today You will be surprised

>(even many of Muslim solders were Persian

So?

>so that not Arabic but a sort of Persian became the vehicle for islamizing Central Asian population (who spoke Sogdian, Bactrian and a number of other languages). Later the emerging New Persian got strong support from the kings of the Samanid dynasty and produced poets like Rudaki or Firdowsi.

So why did the Iranian Muslims reject the language of Allah? You don't make any sense

>But it was not a revival or continuation of Middle Persian but rather the development of a new albeit related language.

Oh no according to you those darn Persians rejected the language of Allah

This is a case where the civilized (Iranians) used a new alphabet (Arabic) and borrowed new words from Arabic and reshaped their own Persian language and this indeed confirms what Becker is suggesting that it was historical continuity in Iran as well as in Egypt and more evidence that the Islamic Historical Tradition's al-Jahiliyya is incorrect

> An important fact is as well that Abu Hanifa considered the use of Persian as fit to be used in Muslim liturgy.

Oh yes and the first Quranic translation of the Quran was to Persian So what? you still did not answer the question why did Muslim in Iran reject the language of Allah and why did Egyptian Arabic emerge in Egypt where Muslims were a very small minority among a sea of Christian Egyptians?

> And the most of Central Asian Muslims were of Hanafite rite

Can you read Arabic Syriac and Egyptian language texts?

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