sermo plebeius and sermo urbanus Italian v Latin and Egyptian Arabic v Classical Arabic

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Feb 1, 2018 at 08:19

gato you wrote:

>Since I know Italian and have some knowledge of Latin, and also some knowlede of both fuSHa and Egyptiant Arabic, I know for sure that the difference between fuSHa and EA is by no means so great than as between Latin and Italian, but of course it is big enough to consider them different languages. And yes, I am a little bit familiar with the linguistic situation in Egypt.

If so then you must be familiar with the "celebrated discussion among Renaissance humanists about the intrusion of Italian into areas allocated by tradition to classical Latin" And a case of sermo plebeius and sermo urbanus

You can replace Italian for Egyptian Arabic and Classical Arabic for Latin and you get the same: sermo plebeius and sermo urbanus!

Egyptian Arabic is the mother tongue now but it faces a formidable enemy and that is Classical Arabic!

You still did not answer: Why did the Persians retain their mother tongue? And why did Egyptians abandon their real mother tongue (or did they?) and invented a new sermo plebeuis?

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