Jewish Slaves in NAZI German Third Reich

Submitted by Robert (United States), Jan 10, 2022 at 00:32

Two points:

(1) In 1777 the United States was a Confederation, and even the Articles were not yet drafted. I don't recall if in fact Slavery or Indentured Servitude was abolished in the 13 States at that time, one year after the Declaration of Independence; by the way, the Declaration does not say: "All men are created equal, except Slaves." Who knows the answer to this legal dilemma? Originally Indentured Servants sold themselves into servitude VOLUNTARILY in order to secure passage to the New World; their indenture was payment for that passage.

But (2) during Hitler's time, the younger Jews were not sent immediately into Extermination Camps with Gas Chambers; instead, they were dispatched to Forced Labor Camps, were they were not even fed properly - a dead Jewish slave was replaceable for Free upon his or her death; except for these Jewish Slaves, non Jewish slaves were expensive Chattel - so, "naturally," the owner fed them relatively well, to keep them alive and healthy for their valuable Labor.

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