Explaining why using the term Byzantine and a lesson in history

Submitted by Harrak (Canada), Feb 11, 2006 at 16:53

My friend Ianus and others, welcome!

You saw the term Byzantine as having nothing to do with describing the expertise of Mr hr. Yet here is why I decribed him as an expert in Byzantine. First read the definition of the Byzantine empire:

^^Byzantine Empire :(Greek: Βασιλεία Ῥωμαίων) is the term conventionally used since the 19th century to describe the Greek-speaking Roman Empire during the Middle Ages.

Mr hr shares with the mentioned definition the following:

1-The Byzantine Empire is a GREEKE SPEAKING ROMAN empire, that is why I compared hr to it as Mr hr is an Arabic speaking alian -like he asserted without revealing where from. so that is the first point in common.

2-The Byzantine empire occured in the middle ages. I qualified Mr hr`s comments to be like those in the middle ages that use the language of : my way or the high way; and the language of supremacy...

I hope this helped you decode the comparison...
any time..

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