More to Mr. Tovey

Submitted by Debanjan Banerjee (India), Jun 6, 2010 at 09:56

Hi,

First of all regarding your viewpoint that the term "Jew" is both religious and ethnic is very confusing. Since if I say German , it means only in an ethnic sense but there is no religion involved here. Now how do you say that the term "Jew" coins both religious and ethnic sense ?

Now let me come to more difficult theological questions :

"Before the Muslim Prophet dictated his teachings, salvation for anyone is by obedience to the WORD of the LORD as contained in the Hebrew Holy Bible, both the Tanach (Old )and the Brit Hadassah (New) Testaments. There was no shari'a law before the Muslim Prophet, therefore no need to observe shari'a law to be saved through Jesus Christ. Also, the only liability is that inherent sin in each person (Jesus Christ is the only the sinless human) needs the redemption brought by believing in Jesus Christ; still no effect of shari'a law is necessary."

My Answer : Sharia law was present even before the birth of Prophet Mohammad. Noaic and later Mosaic laws are also Sharia law. You need to study both Noaic or Mosaic law with Sharia law side by side and you will find the similarities.

Another important point to tell that it is incorrect to coin Prophet Mohammad as "Muslim prophet" since prophet Mohammad himself said that he is not the founder of Islam. Islam started from Adam and Eve (Peace be upon them).

"Muslims have one of two choices, to be obedient to the salvation offered through Jesus Christ, or to follow the teachings of the Muslim Prophet; one cannot do both without leaving the other behind; there is no double covenant per Jesus Christ, the duplicity being a fallacy of Muslim teachings."

My Answer : How do you say that the teachings of Prophet Mohammad contradict with that of Jesus Christ ? First of all you need to prove to me whether there is any difference between the teachings of the Prophet Mohammad and Jesus Christ or not and only after that we can come into conclusion about that Jesus Christ was not a Muslim. Another point please note it that Islam existed even before Prophet Mohammad and according to Prophet Mohammad's own words that he never created any new religion as such. Prophet Mohammad actually corrected all the incorrectness in the Hebrew religion preached by Moses and then Jesus.

Now you will say that what was the need for the prophet hood of Mohammad when Jesus personally corrected all the faults in the old Hebrew religion ?

See Mr. Tovey , there are two primary reasons behind the prophethood of Mohammad.

1. The teachings of Jesus were all corrupted by his corrupt followers particularly that Jew of Tersus , the so-called "Saint" Paul (whom you evangelists praise and worship). This sinner and power-hungry Zealot (who killed Jesus's follower Stephen) introduced false teachings (which are of his own mind) into the main teachings of Jesus like the incarnation , Jesus resurrection , faith only etc .
Unfortunately the major body of Christians started to believe in these false teachings of Paul instead of the real Jesus teachings of Jesus. Thereby any person who believes in Paul should be considered a "Paulisian" and not a "Christian".

Now God choose Prophet Mohammad to tell the world about the incorrectness in Paul's teachings and bring them back to the original teachings of the hebrew prophets and Jesus Christ.

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