More to Mr. M Tovey - Part -4

Submitted by Debanjan Banerjee (India), Jun 18, 2010 at 11:28

Hi,

As I can see from your arguments regarding the difference in covenant between Isaac and Ishmael that you want to say that the Almighty LORD gave the best deal to Isaac since he was a free man and Ishmael was a slave.
Now expanding your argument further , one tend to think that Almighty LORD discriminates between two sons of the same father based upon their ethnic status. That implies that the Almighty LORD is partial to some of his creation based upon their birth.
Now Ishmael was not responsible for his birth and since the Almighty LORD himself is responsible for the birth of both Ishmael and Isaac then how can he discriminate between two of his own creations whose birth circumstances he is solely responsible for ?

The argument that you or any other pro-Zionist Christian evangelical gives to justify Israel's policies regarding the holy land implies that the Almighty LORD is partial and unjust towards Ishmael. And this again solidifies my viewpoint that since the Almighty LORD cannot be unjust then surely it is people like the Christian evangelists who must have manipulated the Hebrew HOLY Bible to insert openly anti-Semitic and Islamophobic materials to improve their case.
Kindly tell me otherwise how it is possible that Almighty LORD is not impartial regarding Ishmael and Isaac ? Why on heaven and earth the LORD discriminates against Ishmael when the poor boy was not responsible for his position as a slave or for his birth ?
Kindly tell me the answer.

Another point the same analogy that you show regarding Isaac's superiority over Ishmael that same biblical analogy was used by the pro-slaver people and the pro-Jim Crow law peoples to oppress african-Americans and native-Americans. So kindly tell why do you support those views which every rational man considers as racist ?

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