The logical fallacy continues...

Submitted by Mary (United States), Sep 3, 2010 at 14:17

Dear Clyde:

Your logic is non-existent, once again. Your argument does not even rise to the level of comparing apples and oranges. For one thing, IF there is only one McDonald's in town, and everyone knows about it, then there is zero probability that anyone would call it "The place with the golden arches." They would, however, call it by it's name.

Likewise, IF the "farthest mosque" actually existed, why then would it not be named. Because your claim that it is Jerusalem, absurd to begin with, would ONLY hold true for those people FOR WHOM it is actually the "farthest." So the mosque/city would actually either be named, or "the farthest mosque" would actually BE the name of the mosque. But unfortunately for your argument, it doesn't fly.

The fact is this was not an established mosque during the lifetime of Mohamed, so ANY and ALL of your claims about it are completely moot to begin with. And again, you are making a leap of inference to ASSUME that "the farthest mosque" is located in Jerusalem, but even IF it is, it's irrelevant, considering the lack of importance of Jerusalem in the Koran and the extreme importance placed upon Jerusalem by the Jews and documented in the Hebrew scriptures..

I know you don't understand the concept of a logical fallacy, but that's what you continue to present as your "documentation."

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