Helping the perplexed again! More disasters!

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Nov 16, 2012 at 08:45

Our dear Amin the lost tablighee is trying again his twists and turns and this time it is what I call argument from the devil made me do it

Mr. Einstein: You did not find the word Bishm because it is very clear to me that you have no clue about how the garmmar of semitic languages or the construction of vocabulary or semitic dictionaries work And in Syriac as well as in Arabic you find the root not the individual word et voila you will find the word and the word here is bishm and it isd a word and not words

Ha ha ha . . .

How childish

it was YOUR nonsense that Bisham is a one word . . . It is ME who pointed out it isn't. Oh dear! How nonsense comes crashing down. . . .

More disasters.

You are really beyond help the word BISHM is ONE WORD it is like when you say in Arabic يكتب it means HE WRITES and it is one word and not two words and so are the words BISHM and Arabic B'ISM they are one words! This is the genius of the Semitic languages that are beyond your tablighee mind

You could not find it because you do not know how to look up for words in a Syriac (you did not even know what is Syriac remeber?) dictionary and did you ask yourself why did I use the Peshitta as reference for the word Bishm and then its translation to Arabic? Let me help you

1. The Peshitta pre-dates the Qur'an

2. The presence of the word in the Peshitta means that this is a Syriac word because the Peshitta is a Syriac text

3. The Peshitta pre-dates all Syriac dictionaries

4. Then I examine the translation of the word so THE WORD BISHM is translated to Arabic as ONE WORD and that is Arabic B'ISM now do you get it?

Now do you remember our little KISS?

You know what? you need to find a hobby or may be adopt a dog to keep you busy but all of this is beyond you

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