dnm: good point about Quran restriction to Arabs however it has a precedent in the New Testament which was overridden

Submitted by Shishir (United Arab Emirates), Apr 17, 2013 at 09:57

Jesus too wanted his message to be spread only amongst Jews. His diatribes against the corruption of the Temple and its priesthood was really not all that different from that of Ezekiel or Amos.

It was St Paul who sough to was successful in spreading the Gospel to non Jews compelling to be the most powerful religious force in the world when it won over Constantine.

So the question, while your translation may have merit, perhaps the Muslim eq of St Paul voids that restriction and throws Islam open to non Arabs.

The question is -are there other verses that negate the spirit and letter behind this verse? If not, wasnt it problematic for Islamic theologians to consider Islam as a universal religion a la Christianity on such flimsy grounds?

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