Since when are Muslims a nation?

Submitted by sara (United States), Jun 22, 2011 at 18:09

You mention the French, British and Americans as examples of revolution but you fail to note that these are all soverign nations with many religions and sects, who are united as a nation state. The freedom and revolution was in order to have free rights in their home countries. How on earth are you making the leap from that to Muslims?

This is a basic fault in many discussions such as "Islam and the West', as if the west was a religion itself and not a pluralistic society comprised of many religions. Muslims as an entity are not equitable with either a soverign nation, or a geographical area characterized by many cultures and peoples.

Or are you referring to the entire Muslim Ummah as a 'nation', a religious hegemony?

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