Our dear Arthur and his big time falsafa and Abul Qasim's only miracle is on the line

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Aug 30, 2007 at 07:02

You now tell us that Muhammad being illiterate or not is a moot point but you also wrote after a long winded paragraph about al-rasul al-nabi al-ummi Abul Qasim

>the revelation of such work by an "illirerate is the only miracle that he claimed

This is what you wrote. Correct? So why do you tell us now that Muahmmad being muta3alim aw jahil (oh I forgot that you do not know any Arabic. It means educated or uneducated) is a moot point? Correct? Well in this case Muahmmad's only miracle is now based on a moot point. Do you now see how poor is, and you must pardon me, your command of logic?

So was Muhammad really muta3alim or educated or was he a jihil (notice that i do not use the word Ummi anymore becuase it means gentile or non-Jewish and not uneducated)? Because if you can prove to me that he was indeed jahil then your point is indeed valid but still the Qur'an is nothing but poor literature and can only have been produced by a jahil. But the Qur'an says in Q96: Iqra' or read and it does not say. You know what this means: It means that Muhammad was able to read at least Q96 and it still is nothing but poor literature. So much for Abul Qasim's only miracle

So you tell us again: was Muhammad really uneducated or not and as you see it is not a moot point anymore.

Then you tell us like a good tablighee that if we do not believe you we can read the Qur'an then you tell me that may be I do not get what the Qur'an really says. Could you give me examples where I really do not seem to know what the Qur'an is really saying?

See what happens when you become the slave of a foreign language and culture that you do not belong to?

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