The Qur'an by its own definition

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Jul 26, 2016 at 17:24

There is another silly argument that corruption means that the Jews and Christians moved some verses from one place to another place in their books

The islamic disaster here is this would mean that the Qur'an is a corrupted book Reason? First revealed Sura or so we are told is Surat al-'Alaq or Q96 but we find that the first Sura in the Qur'an that we have now is Surat al-Fatiha This means that by its own definition the Qur'an is a corrupted book

More? Muslims also tell us that the Jews and Christians corrupted their book in the process of exegesis not the texts themselves No I'm not kidding

Now the most astonishing thing about Islam is that the Qur'an contains lots of polemics against Jews and Christians and pagans but it does not advance the real understanding of the logically flawed idea of the single god not even an inch For good reading about it read Tafsir al-Tabari of Q112

And you are right Muslims have never been able to tell us who where and by whom the OT and NT were corrupted

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