For Abd al-Rahman

Submitted by Moayidd (Egypt), Oct 9, 2007 at 09:01

You are accusing someone else (who ever that is) of the same error you are making. While words might share the same root they don't necessarily have the same meaning. The word Kafr (as in village) isn't actually Arabic just so you know, it is Arabaized Ancient Egyptian. It isn't even prounced the same way but because you either don't speak Arabic or you are deliberatly misleading readers, you didn't mention this fact.

The word Kaafir really means 'Vieled' from some or all truth. Hence, Non-muslims are Kaafirs because they are veiled from the truth in the Qur'aan. Muslims, who are veiled from some truth, like the existnece of heaven/hell can also also be regarded as Kaafirs or Kuffaar (to be more accurate) in the strictest sense. Just like Shirk (Association) Kufr has varying levels or degrees. However, the Qur'aan itself only refers to non-Muslims as Kuffaar not to muslims.

If you wish to debate this issue, or any issue in the Qur'aan or even your own Torah in Hebrew or New testament in Aramaic with me, I would be MORE than happy to put you in your correct rank of ignorance.

In fact, I have corrected many of the errors in the Torah and New testament using the Qur'aan, or at least highlighted what these two other books were trying to say but didn't.

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