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For 'Abd al-Rahman and Chutzpah!!!Reader comment on item: Muslim-Controlled Governments Subsidize Conversions of Kafirs Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Jul 21, 2006 at 07:25 You are debating issues in a language that you do not know and still come back with more and you must pardon me, nonsense. The question is why? You wrote: "I am looking at the Hans Wehr 4th ed. p975 kafara: to hide" Well, I have Hans Wehr here in front of me: 1. On page 975 both A and B I find the letter Nuun and the leading root is NZR!!! 2. in Hans Wehr we have the words written in Arabic and the meaning of the word in English. You cannot read Arabic, so you explain to me how did you read the word kafara in Arabic (transliteration would not count as your accent in Arabic is a function of the way you would pronounce your vowels in your _primary_ language whatever this might be)? I do not believe you. Now for the root KFR we have to turn to page 833A and let me repeat what i wrote before: ... I'm repeating it one more time; 1. The word Yakfur means he becomes a kafir or an infidel Yakfur is from Sibawayhe's Yaf'ul (or Form II verb) And do you really what Yaf'ul or Form II verb for this matter really means? I'm curious: Do you really who was Sibawayhe? 2. The word Kafara means he covers and it is from Sibawayhe's Fa'ala (or Form III verb) 3. And the most amzing is that 'Abd al-Rahman does not tell us that the word Kafr (Sibawayhe's Fa'l) means VILLAGE!!! The genius of the semitic root system is that many words can have the same root (eg: the infamous and funny SLM where ignorant Pakistanis claim that because the words: Islam and Salam come from the same root, Islam means salam and now the funny "Islam the religion of peace"! This is as poor grammar and ignorance as it can get) Semitic words from same root can have very different meanings because of what Sibawayhe's discovery of the basic word F'L or feh 'Ayin lam. In the West we use the so called Form (II-VI) verb system and words from different Forms can be very different words with nothing in common even if they have the same root. So Kafr (village) yakfur (he becomes an infidel) or kafara (or he covers) are three very different words. So would you say that village and kafir are one and the same words? If you do not get it this time, you really need some help. (For the readers: In 'Abd al-Rahman desperate attempts to prove his point, one would wonder that if we are to use the root system in the English language and we have let us say a root of SN, and one can say that it is either Sun or Son but it would be wrong to say that because both Son and Sun have the same root, therefore Son= Sun!!! The Arabic root system is not any different). As for your Saudi's friend and his "official" Qur'an! Give me a break!! And while we are at it: he is invited to get into the discussion. At least he will know, or I hope so, Arabic. Do yourself a favor: stop listening to ignorant pakistanis and learn to read for yourself. No I have no like for Islam and I have never been a Muslim or plan to be one... Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments". << Previous Comment Next Comment >> Reader comments (40) on this item
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