For Abd al-Rahman: Do you really know what are really diacriticla points and not marks as you claim?

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Jul 14, 2006 at 21:55

You wrote: "The root without diacritical marks is as you say: KFR.

Your must pardon me but you are debating a point in langauge that you do not seem to speak or write or even read:

1. The diacritical points (and not marks as you claim) are al-nuqat and they are part of the root of a word.

For the readers: the Arabic letters beh (B) teh (T) and theh (TH) look the same except you will find one diacritical point or nuqta wahda below the letter, the teh you will find nuqtatan or two points above the letter, and a theh you will find three nuqat above the letter.

2. Now here is where and you must pardon me your total ignorance of the Arabic language shines: you seem to have no clue about short vowels as in fatha, damma and kasra or A, I, O, sounds. (which is very different from the long vowels Yeh or ii, Alif or AA, and waw or uu.

So ya ayuha al-faylasoof al-kabeer you need to:

1. Learn Arabic first.

2. Learn Arabic grammar

Until then there is no reason for me to believe the rest of your balh blah blah.

To the readers: A kafir means:

1. A non-Muslim

2. And under certain conditions is a Muslim.

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