the difference is ...

Submitted by the Grand Infidel of Kafiristan (Australia), Sep 2, 2009 at 17:11

a belated reply to Mr. Gulam's comments

Mr.Gulam writes
"... To claim some special space for Judaic law, on the ground that it is non-proselytizing, does not hold water, in as much as this supposedly non-proselytizing Jewish religion has tremendous and undeniable impact on Western societies."

That's a claim made with zero justification. A statement unrelated to facts. Apart from Muslims , some conspiracy theorists and neo-Nazi's from time to time make similar assertions.

"......And nobody can deny that."
Rhetorical statements don't make an assertion valid.
I just did deny it. Now it's up to you to prove your claim.

" It is therefore merely self-serving to justify Jewish influence on western society and denying same space to Sharia -- even on merits. "
Jews have been part of Western society for hundreds of years - and in many cases been valuable contributors to it. In fact over 140 of them have received Nobel prizes over the years. You could pick out any subgroup in Western society and make claims that they have undue influence - Poles, Latvians, Catholics etc etc. But you would be talking rubbish - as any Westerner would know.

" and denying same space to Sharia -- even on merits. "
It sounds like sour grapes to me, Mr. Gulam. You don't like it that the Jews are more accepted than Muslims in the West. There's a very good reason for that. Jewish religious law doesn't seek to dominate Western society - nor could it ever. Muslims seek to dominate wherever they go. Your little green book tells you that you have the 'supreme religion' remember?

Yeah, right.

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