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The hidden origin of IslamReader comment on item: Developments in Syria and Turkey Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Jun 11, 2013 at 06:12 David wrote With those perspectives in mind, it should be realized that the Arabs haven't been a main player in the Middle East since the mid 8th century. In 750AD, the Persians resumed power under the guise of the Abassid who promptly build Baghdad (old Persian for "God's Garden") and moved their capital there. Over time There is no doubt that one of the great anomalies about the history of the Arab invasions of the Middle East in the 7th century is that how can a few thousand Arabs invade and destroy the Byazntine empire and the Sassanid empire? and how can they conquer far superior civilizations? How could a bunch of caravan raiders and warriors looking for looting and raping and mayhem conquer such great empires unless those that did the fighting and the planning were not those backward Arabs? We are told by Muslim historians that only 4000 Arabs invaded Egypt and were able to defeat the great army of the Byzantine empire in Egypt! and yes I realize that the number 4000 could very well be the topos of 40,400,4000 nontheless it still does not explain what really happened Now the Persians invaded the Byzanitne empire (The Levants and Egypt) starting in 616CE (The Muslim ulama tell us that this war made it to the Qur'an is surat al-ruum or Q30) and this war exhausted the resources and the powers of both empires. However, the Greeks were able to fight back and were able to defeat the Persians and the turning point was in Mesopotamia in 622CE and the Persians pulled out of Egypt in 628CE Now in the case of Egypt the Arabs invaded Egypt in 642CE and here is the problem the invaders could very well have been Arabs but how can 4000 Arabs invaded and conquer a rich country of 7M (the is the population of Egypt on the eve of the Arab invasion) which does not sense unless those invaders were Persians under the guise of those Arabs! Sounds far fetched? but this is the only way that one can explain this anomaly More evidence? It is no secret that as per Ali Dashti 70% of the books of al-turath al-islami or the literary sources of early Islam were not written by Arabs but by Persians and that Persians made Islam what it is and not the Arabs! Can you imagine Islam without al-Tabari or al-Zamakhshari or even the Arabic language without Sibawayhe? Oh the Arabs? the rule of the Arabs in defining what Islam is all about is marginal at best Now the Abbassids were not Arabs they were Persians after all why would they establish their capital not in al-HIjaz but in Baghdad and use the Persian words the garden of god and not the Arabic term hadiqatu Allah? Because they were Persians and not Arabs and the only way I see it here is that the way for the Persians to go after the Byzantine empire again is to do it under the guise of the Arabs and this very well explains it all So it seems to me that it was Persians that invaded the Middle East and also created Islam under the guise of the ignorant Arabs! Sounds far fetched? But it is the only way to explain this anomaly Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments". Reader comments (82) on this item |
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