For Harrak and his flawed logic and more of the absurd!

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Dec 4, 2006 at 07:34

My dear harrak you are realizing that your command of the subject of the transmission of the Greek learning is poor at best. Your started by telling us that it was the Arabs/Muslims that translated such learning including writing foot-notes in the Greek "philo and mytho" (sic) and now you are realizing that this is just bogus, and that such translations were conducted by Nestorians and not by Arabs. Then you come back and tell us that such fact is only _partly true_ but you never provide us with a single name of an Arab or even Muslim who worked on such translations.

So change your tune and you tell us that the fact that such translations happened in Mesopotamia which was then occupied by the Arabs then we must give credit to the barbarians aka Arabs. This is the absurd and do you know why?

Because if the Arabs did not invade the Byzantine empire in the 7th century, and in the process detroyed Hellenism in the Middle East including Arabization of the great centers of Greek learning including Alexandria. and if the Ottoman Turks did not invade Constantinople in the 15th century we would not have had this discussion

You can only blame the Arabs (oh well like I say they were busy looting, raping, enslaving the infidels and collecting the juzya and claiming that all of this was done in the name of the God of the universe!) and these translations were conducted despite of Islam and not because of the Arabs and their civilization.

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