Roman Conquest Basis for Arab Claim?

Submitted by M Tovey (United States), Jun 23, 2020 at 01:10

One question that seems innocuous is that 'Palestinian' is derived from a Roman appellation; how does that reconcile with claiming something that cannot be proved beyond Josephus' history, let alone any fabrications that cannot be proven beyond 2000 (two) thousand years? Did the Romans not exist in their fables as well? Also, if 'Philistines' is to be used for the basis of the name, someone explain how an ancient people that are not Semitic can assume a Semitic identity for the purposes of making a spurious claim to a land that ceased being a Roman enclave centuries ago.

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