Nuray: and the study of history

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Jan 26, 2006 at 06:24

...But ya auiha al-faylasoof al-kabeer: Why would Muhammad or is it that Allah thing that pre-Islamic Arabian pagan deity that is supposed to have revealed his poor literature called al-Qur'an in 'Arabi Faseeh to use a word and in this case: al-Rum for "the Greeks" when there are indeed Arabic words for Greeks and they are:

1. al-Yunaniyoon.

Or

2. al-Ighreeq.

Why would he use a Syriac word al-Rum instead of an Arabic word?

So much for 'Arabi faseeh

After you answer this (oh I forgot you know no Arabic) let us you and I go and work on literary criticism of Surat al-Rum and let us see what we come up with.

---

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".