byzantine empire

Submitted by jack (Canada), Sep 1, 2011 at 22:51

I agree with the article. if Spanish language and culture used in many countries we can not call them all Spaniards. similarly with english language. etc. From ancient times Greek culture borrowed heavily from other sources, especially from Egypt and Anatolian cultures. Yes, eventually they started to feed. However later historians (mainly 19th century) they all attributed everything to Greeks and now to take it back it's a big task. Similarly Byzantine empire referred as "Greek empire" is not correct. Yes lots of regions in Anatolia did speak Greek but their ethnicity was never Greek, however they were all referred as Greeks.

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".