Islam was really spread by the sword as in the case of the pagans of Mecca

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Jun 5, 2009 at 07:27

I posed this question to our dear shaji ...

And that is my point so would you agree that at least in the case of Meccan pagans islam was spread by the sword as in "islam taslam" or convert to islam or be safe! Right? then your claim is bogus and would you like to retract your bogus claim that Islam was never spread by the sword?

>Never Islam spread by sword either during the time of Prophet (peace be upon him)

Really our dear sahji (peace be upon him)? then how about ayat al-sayf or islam taslam mr ignorant?

>or the era of righteous predecessors since 3 generations after him.

Really? then why did your Arab masters invade the Middle East in 633CE? Let me see because Allah cannot change the minds and hearts of us infidles and get us to become Muslims right? do you know what this means? It means that Muslims had to invade and kill and ensalve and collect the loot from infidels and give 1/5 of it to Allah and his rasul right? More evidence that islam was really spread by the sword and by violence?

Oh and al-khulafa' al-rashiduun? 3 out of 4 of them were killed by other Muslims! Oh the religion of peace and what a joke and what a fadiha

And how about your Hindu ancestors that were brutalized by islam and by Muslims?

>That means, Qur'an or Sunnah is never a proof for anyone else's activity.

Huh? oh well the usual gobbeldygook

> Moreover when you reply, don't cut my comment half way to prove your point.

What comments? Oh you mean your verbal diarrhea? you posted a blog of about 18000 words and I'm reading every word and i'm snipping the nonsense and there is lots of it. Oh and get used to it

Then I posed the follwoing to our dear sahji al-tablighee:

But here is your bonus question for today: why would your Allah ask Abul Qasim and his minions to kill in his name in-order to spread islam? could it be because Allah is not able to change the minds of those pagans? You know what this means? it means that your Allah is not omnipotent! Or could it be that your Allah wanted war so Muslims can collect the ghanima and he can get 1/5 of the loot colletced as per Q8:41 so which one is it?

>Allah did not ask Prophet (peace be upon him) to kill people for no reason and to spread Islam.

really? then how about ayat al-jizya? And how come you did not know that?

>Allah has given free mind to human beings and anybody is free to choose right from wrong.

Really? then how about al-qada' wa al-qadr doctrine? you think that i should tell your masters the Arabs that you ...do not believe in al-qada' wa al-qadr?

>This is Allah's rule of creation. Qur'an 76:3 says – "We showed him the Way: whether he be grateful or ungrateful (rests on his will)."

ROTFL your translation is bogus as the aya says in Arabic a language that you cannot read speak or write

inna hadaynahu al-sabeeli imma shakira wa imma kafaru

and here is tarjamat al-kilma/lafz

1. inna you can read it as truly

2. hadaynahu means we guided him

3. al-sabeel means tha path or the way

4. imma shakira means if he thanked

5. wa imma kafura or if he did not believe

And here is tarjamat al-ma3na

truly we guide him to the way whether he is thankful or disbelieving

Now I have few questions for you

1. So you tell us our dear shaji the demagogue what does this aya have to do with al-qada' wa al-qadr?

2. And if you were correct then may be your Allah would have said: wa laysa fil al-islam qada' wa qadr bal fi al-islam huryat al-irada but you will not find it in the Qur'an

3. and where would i find in the aya your bogus "rests on his will"? Shame on you for editing the Qur'an and you think that I should tell al-wahabiyuun that ... is editing the Qur'an?

4. and here is your bonus for today the rasm of the word INA was edited by the ulama by adding a kasra under the alif and a shadda above the nuun and a fatha above the nuun! So much for the unedited Qur'an

>Qur'an never said Allah does anything or everything.

gobbledygook

>But Qur'an said in 2:106, 2:109, 2:148, and in several places that Allah has the "Power over all things".

really?

For the readers: the Qur'an is no more than confused and poor theology and in many verses it is very clear that there is no palce for free will in islam and in very few verse one can read thme as there is really some degree of free will in Islam but the ulama theough what is called as ijma3 came to the conclusion that there is really no free will in islam and it is all about pre-destination. The real, question now is how come our dear shaji did not know that? could it be because he is ignorant or a liar?

And this is for our dear shaji: Oh I see then is this another case of al-nasikh wa al-mansukh? But you know what? the ulama realized this poor Quranic theology and in al-ijma3 there was free will in islam and it is all about al-qada' wa al-qadr and how come you did not know that?

>Verse 8:41 says –

Oh the Allah gest 1/5 of the loot aya, oh stay tuned for this one

I urge you to get a life

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