Our dear MdShafiq is really saying that the Qur'an is a corrupted book! Read and laugh!

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Feb 4, 2018 at 12:54

Our dear MdShafiq wrote this Urdu Arabic:

> verse 3 from Surah Al Ma'edah

Let me fix it: Surat al-Ma'eda and do us all a favor and stick to Urdu

> (Today I have perfected your religion and am happy with Islam as your religion)

This is what is says in Arabic: اليوم اكملت لكم دينكم Or today I completed for you your religion (Islam that is)

And al-Mufasereen tell us: لم ينزل على النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم بعد هذه الاية شيء or nothing was revealed to the prophet may Allah prays upon him and salute him any thing

This means that this verse is the last verse in the Qur'an

This is from an old post of mine:

"Well let us see what it says in the Qur'an in Q4:46

من الذين هادوا يحرفون الكلم عن مواضعه

This means: And from the Jews there are those who corrupt the words (by taking them out) from their right place

And this is what Allah says about Biblical corruption so Biblical corruption does not mean that the Jews changed the words of Allah but they moved the words of Allah and put it them some other place

So Allah regards corruption of a text as moving his words from their right place

This means that Surat al-Ma'eda: 3 should be the last verse in the Qur'an right our dear MdShafiq? But it is not the last verse of the Qur'an and why is that our dear MdShafiq?

This means that the Qur'an is a corrupted by its own definition of textual corruption!

See? You are exposing the Qur'an for what it is: Poor theology!

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