Rebuttal to Joe's comments

Submitted by Leah (United States), Aug 29, 2006 at 16:58

Christ did obvious miracles, mohammed did none (except the 'miracle of the koran', only considered a miracle by muslims)
Christ was sinless, mohammed was not. (He says even he has to pray for Allah's mercy to get into heaven - muslims are aware of this)
Christ's birth was miraculous (virgin), mohammed's was normal (copulation).
Christ preached denial of the flesh and kept no wives or wealth. Mohammed preached the same and had lots of both.

You disqualified the miracle of the Koran as a miracle because it is only a miracle to Muslims, but qualified

Jesus' alleged virgin birth, lack of sin, and "obvious mircles," which are only accepted by Muslims and Christians--not the rest of the population. Additionally, Mohammed's imperfection could also be seen as an advantage--he admitted that no one is perfect, and therefore was more honest than Jesus. Also, Mohammed did not have lots of wealth. It says when he died he only had few belongings--the quote from the Koran is in Wikipedia.

Additionally, Jesus apparently tortures in Hell for all eternity nonbelievers---this was the justification used in medieval times for torturing non-Christians: if not being a Christian means going to Hell, any means are acceptable to get someone to convert. (A very literal interpretation of the Christian Bible, to be sure, but no less literal than what the "Islam is evil" folks apply to the Koran.)

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