Rational or irrational...

Submitted by J.S. (Canada), Mar 16, 2006 at 16:12

Someone else here suggested that the perpetrators of "Sudden Jihad Syndrome" tended to be "introverts" -- I don't believe there is much evidence to suggest that this peculiar condition is related to "introversion" or "extroversion." Where's the evidence to indicate that "introverts" are more apt to commit such criminal offenses?

The extent to which the violence is thought out beforehand is also problematic (sometimes, it appears almost spontaneous -- a sudden impulse -- at other times it appears much more plotted and planned, years in preparation (as in 9/11). These are moot points.

I believe the factor to consider is psychopathic deviance -- or, as the Americans prefer to term it -- "sociopathic" behaviour. This is the level of abject indifference shown towards others -- the absence of empathy. I recall once reading a study with respect to children, the hours of television viewing and violence. The problem with such studies is differentiating cause from effect -- ie, which is the cause and which is the effect? It could be argued that the more violence prone children simply choose to watch more tv than their less violent peers. Ditto could be said of Islam -- Islam may be an attractant for the already violent-prone or those already predisposed to commit acts of violence.

I also wonder if Islam does not *teach* psychopathy to its adherents (?) -- that is, like nazism, it's a *learned* phenomenon (or as you've mentioned, it's cultural...) (The reason why I mention this is because there are those who would argue that psyhopathic characteristics have a genetic component.)

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