But you claimed that in Q21:107 is your evidence in bogus evidence?

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Apr 17, 2007 at 21:07

Careless reader, I do not see Muhammad's name in this aya, I do not see anything in this aya that is even close to saying that Muhammad was sent as a rasul/nabi le kul al-bashr or for all of mankind, and more damaging to your case is that who ever is this character that your Allah sends, He sends him for compassion and nothing about islam. However if your Allah would have said: "wa arsalana Muhammad rsulan le kul al-bashr wa ina al-islam deens le kul al-bashr" You would have a case, but this is not what the aya says.

As for the word al-3alaamin, shame on you. you are pontificating about a language that you do not even know and I call this: Chutzpah! I stand by what I wrote and it is: universe/worlds (it is not in dual case) and for this see hans Wehr dictionary page 636A, and you can also check Dawood's translation, and his native language is Arabic he translates the word as; _Universe_ and as for our dear Pickthall ( the poor soul who was converted by ignorant tablighees) translates the same word in Surat al-Fatiha as _the worlds_

But wait: So did your allah also sent Muhammad as a rasul to let us say Mars? If so, keep him there.

Now you post other ayat to prove your bogus case, but I will not do your dirty work. you tell us in your own words why those ayat say that Islam is for all and Muhammad was sent to all of mankind and you know what? You ain't Suyuti. Shame

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