Plato, clarification...

Submitted by Taj (United States), Apr 20, 2008 at 23:31

And saying there is no country in existence ruled by Islamic principles is no better than the claim that used to be made by communists that there never was any communist country in existence only countries ruled by communist parties with socilaist governments on the way to becoming communist nations.

I would beg to differ with your opinion - first in attempting to compare my statement to whatever made by whatever communists - which, by the way, is certianly arguable regarding it's rationale...

Your claim also raises the question why muslim country majority countries are unable to throw up governments that rule by Islamic principles. Have there been any since the time of the rightly guided ones?? Why did Allah restrict guidance only to those four?

I am not sure my claim raises any such question, but if it does, I don't see how it relates to my points...As to why "guidance" was restricted to only those four - I am not sure this is a valid question. The term comes from a hadith (Ibn Dawood) but does not necessarily restrict guidance to them as much as it bestows an honorific upon the first for khalifah...

If it is your claim like other Muslims that it is not the fault of Islam but of Muslims who are not following the Koran it amounts to admitting that Islam is unable to guide even people who claim to be its followers.

I also disagree here...Islam is a religion that stands on its own merits. Whether an individual follows it or not is subjective. Whether you or I percieve that people follow it - or attempt to quantify adherence is also a subjective matter and one we can hardly be qualified to ascertain...Here, I would only opine that Muslims worldwide can do a better job of following Islam, including myself...

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