Submitted by M Tovey (United States), Aug 3, 2020 at 18:11
Understanding Competing Contentions of Theocracy
DNM;
Continuing the search of reason that seems to elude humanity at times is, in and of itself, a frustrating process, since there is, as you have very we4ll observed, no real consensus of achieving a common dialogue of understanding. Having spent decades in trying to refine this reader's basis for determining what is truth versus the various myriad dissertations and narratives throughout history, looking through the uncounted libraries and collections of philosophies to see who had found a way to conquer the futility of mankind's inability to comprehend what evidently humanity is never going to learn from mortal ideologies, there is only one conclusion to be drawn: but we'll come back to that later.
One of the fascinations this reader has been able to discern from the explorations of the various other observers of Dr. Pipes posting is its international interplay of a subject matter that has ancient roots, and to our earlier exchanges that are going back to earlier answers you have provided to others, this touched on one of the 'tools' this observer has been using for all that intervening time when the curiosity of youth has matured into more than pure inquisitiveness: language skills, such as yours.
You have written many times to others, and more recently when you piqued my attention, that interpretations of languages of the subject matter and dependent upon one's 'interpretation,' contravening ideologies can take on meanings no one is able to believe, and sometimes misunderstands. This even goes to the exchanges you and I have had regarding the ancient texts of the populations of history, such as the one you provided: Peshitta. Which theosophy did that serve in its day and how does that serve any modern interpretation when there is no common vocabulary for learning in today's context? There is the similarity in your 'vetting' the ancient Arabic understanding of interpreting the ancient Quranic texts and today's 'transliterations' that are used to exert religious controls in a modern religious setting.
Question: how does 'tabligi jamaat' figure into the ancient texts before the Arabic incursions east of the ancient Arabic tribal confluences(?); how old is Sanskrit or other previous predecessors like ancient Persian or other indo-aryan languages that were used to form societal cultures in the region? Please advise.
Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".