Is the Qur'an a Kitab Mubeen? Is al-Tabari Allah's Editor-in Chief? And the Muslim Bobeds of early Islam

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Nov 11, 2021 at 17:21

You wrote:

>Did al-Tabari, not being Arab, truly have the correct perception so much later?

The short version is: Yes and No and Only Allahu A'lam!

The long version? I suggest that you google the "Persian-Greek War of 614 AD-627 AD" and read "what really happened" and the "TimeLine" of the war.

Then read Surat al-Ruum:1-3 and check Ghali's translation.

I will give you a couple of days then I will read the verse in Arabic and explain al-Tabari's tafsir including some daunting Semitic grammar then correlate the Timeline of the war as well as what the Islamic tradition tells us based on al-Tabari's tafsir and in the process you will be able to understand from this example how al-Tabari faired and did he make the Qur'an a Kitab Mubeen or not.

>Is there where the issues between Shiite and Sunni have a point of dissention?

The short version? al-Tabari, more likely than not, was a Muslim Mobed (the Mobeds are the Zoroastrian clerics) and you need to read an introduction to the Shahnemah by Firdawsi so you can understand this great Persian civilization and the Persian mind that shaped Islam along the lines of the old saying: If you can't beat them, then join them.

There are no simple answers here

PS: 1. You did not answer my question: Why there was a disconnect between Mecca and Medina of 610 AD-632 AD and Mesopotamia/Iran of late second and early 3rd century of Islam? Why would Muhammad and his followers must have understood what the Qur'an says in Surat Yusuf:1 that the Qur'an is a a Kitab Mubeen and al-Tabari and Ahl al-Tafsir had no idea what this verse really means? Any guesses? The answer to this question could unlock your question so stay tuned.

2. Next we can discuss the Ahl Layka also Ahl al-Ayka tradition where we can date that some of the narratives in the Qur'an pre-date Mecca of 610 Ad by several hundred years!

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