Tovey: Why did the Arabs starting in 633 AD, invade the Middle East and beyond?

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Nov 18, 2021 at 13:44

The real reason for the Arab invasions starting in 633 AD?

Patricia Crone, in her book "Meccan Trade page 244", wrote:

"In short, Muhammad had to conquer, his followers liked to conquer, and his deity told him to conquer: do we need anymore?"

And why Muhammad and his followers "conquer"? Because of غنيمة or booty!

And no Islam did not exist in 633 AD, not yet.

It was not about anti-Christianity or anti-Judaism, although the Qur'an is full of hate for Jews and Christians.

The God of Muhammad in Surat al-Anfal:40 tells Muhammad that: فان لله خمسه وللرسول or: Allah and his messenger (Muhammad) get 1/5 of the booty!

And to quote Crone: "Do we need anymore?"

Here is Surat al-Anfal:40:

https://quran.com/8/40?font=indopak

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