Our dear Nura and now his/her favorite word of the day is secularism

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), May 16, 2008 at 20:26

Our dear Nura who speaks, writes and thinks like a product of a glorious madrassa wrote

>Thanks for the Dictionary.com definition. I know what Imperliasm means in the West. Islam is NOT Imperialistic.

Really? so let us see: the invasion of the civilized Middle East in 633CE by the Hijazi Arabs is not cultural and military imperialism? Are you for real? I think that George Orwell must be turning in his grave

>As stated in the definition it is the subjugation of a people by a people. Islam does not fall under that Characteristic. It was the commandment and plan of Allah to establish Islam in the land as the religions before it was established.

So let us change the definition to: a subjucation of a people by an Arabian deity called Allah so he can get 1/5 of the loot collected from subjucated people. Would that be fine our dear Nura?

>In the Caliphate, authority is to ALLAH first, then his prophet, then those of authority.

Not really. Early on the Khalifa was called Khaifatu Allah and not Khalifat rasul Allah and your claim and your knowledge is bogus and shame on you for not knowing this much. What does that mean? I do not translate Arabic to wannabe arabs like you. And your claim is bogus

>This is grossly different that imposing the laws of man, Kingdom, on the people. Islam should not have Kingdoms,

Really? so what is the caliphate our dear Nura the wannabe Arab?

>and you do not see Kings in early Islam for this very reason.

Hello: they were called al-khulafa' al-rashiduun even the Syrians called them early on the Knigs of the Arabs. Your claim is bogus

>This different than British, France, ect. Whose laws of subjugation came from a King, or Queen who is held as being the supreme authority. There is a difference.

What difference? Let me help: there is no difference.

Oh, and i deleted the rest of your post as it is no more than drivel

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