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too many grey areas and biased unfounded empty worded arguments!Reader comment on item: Does Turkey Still Belong in NATO? Submitted by Rzepa (United Arab Emirates), Jun 24, 2011 at 14:22 OK, explain then how Azeris who are considered Turks due to the language they speak have none of the turkic/mongolic/asiatic signatures in their haplogroups (Nazidze er all refers)? How if they were raped into speaking a Turkic language? They are Caucasians by blood on paternal side and mainly European and Near Eastern on maternal. Do you say R1a is a turkic haplogroup? Genetics can pinpoint the maternal lineage without the paternal lineage of "those who raped them". So your argument there is quite soggy. Early Europeans were turks. Turkic originated from Caucasus. R1b is the turkic haplogroup. Ossetians do not speak IE language! Basques speak agglunitative language like Caucasian and Turkic languages. So do Hungarians, Finns and Estonians in Europe. Thor Heyerdhal proposed theory Odin came from land of Aser giving geographical location of Azerbaijan where rock drawings show to be the same as the ones found in Scandinavia. In Azerbaijan was Saka curent Sheki, where currently Norwegians are busy excavating near village Kish and finding their Scandinavian roots in Azerbaijan. Sakas could well be Saxons, the genrlanic tribe. Another Scandinavian-turk runic connecitons? Why is that? Why Etruscans believed Rom & Romulus came from mother wolf....just like turks believe and nobody else? Coincidentally they also used the same runic writing used by Eturscans to create the latin alphabet and so on so on so on... And Russians who carry a viking tribe name (Ross), were an agrucultural peasant folk who knew nothing about treating metal, wore the same armor as turks did, moved from Central Europe running from slavery (=Slav=slave=slovlenniy) into volga basin where they occupied lands used by vikings and turks for trade but abandoned due to trade moving to Danube. So turks came back and instead of anhiliating them as they could according to you and Gumilyov and just let them pay tax to live in their Turk lands... How come Nowrus celerated only by Iranic and ALL Turkic ppl is not celebrated by other IE people? If Turk culture was so primitive, then we shoudl think it was Turks who adopted Nowruz from Iranians and not the other way round.. But why then no oterh IE celebrates it? Anyway, too many miconnections...Turkic is too ancient and cannot be found in records because of that. When IE emerged they did everything to destroy whatever was left of Turkic written heritage... Written with runes...Your arguments are highly biased, unfounded and genrally weak... Chinese re-wrote history because they new who turks were - the most ancient ppl so they wanted to destroy all ovidence of that so that they and their emperors could be considered the most elevated ppl in the region. Same happenned with Russians who took all things to do with metal treatment, armor making from Turks. We know what's the base of Russian occupancy - peasantry. To date slavic countries like Belirus, Poland are highly agricultural... The were always until they learned from turks. And scthians were turkic speakers. The haplogroup R1 is turkic. Turks moved Caucasus to Europe and India, then back to Caucasus and Asia Minor to Europe and back to Central Asia not presented by IE scholars as IE movements... Ha-ha-ha... The truth whoch will soon shock Europe is around the corner... Too many turkic words in European languages. Let;s take one example frommm Germanic language.. German Herr=Er=Man/Worrior... Pls expalin... too many such coincidences.. The most ancient ppl were turks and they were white and they were primitive when others were even more primitive. When they unfortunately mixed with mongols they degraded and that's what the IE scholars are seeing.. What about arts and architecture (concidentally???) florishing during turkic rule??? Let;s go to what we started from - ols explain how Azeris without a single asiatic haplogroup (except from little west asian/ear eastern) speak Turkic? They too have R1a & R1b up to 20 %... how? How did they get the language without being raped? BTW, how possible if having raped so many women in Asia minor, they didn't pass their asiatic genes to the modern Turks of Anatolia? Only 10% - surely not enogh considering the mass rapes.. Turks frightened life out of Europe when they came back as Seljuks (already mongolisised, unf!) to the extent that EUropeans cannot think straight about their own origins... Turkic origins coing from Caucasus to who the European race owes name - Caucasian without having uch G or J2 haplogoups to support the name... Because their real Caucasian genes are the turkic R1a & R1b genes.... which scholars admit have originated form between Anatolia & Caucasus... I stop here... Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments". << Previous Comment Next Comment >> Reader comments (532) on this item
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