Submitted by M Tovey (United States), Aug 25, 2022 at 18:53
We read of the postulation that if there is enough evidence that some semblance of achieved objectives can be deemed sufficient for the Russian to declare victory, does that actually have any traction when all other factors indicate that not only are the original objectives not achieved yet, the mounting losses indicate a retreat is more likely going to be the reason for doubling down and getting a re-energized contingent force to compel some form of capitualtion from the Ukraine, whether the Ukranian president would agree or not. Any speculation of a victory without the vanquishment of the leadership is presented here as highly unlikely.
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