Ten Commandments- There is the Truth for All to see!

Submitted by AnswerThis! (United States), Mar 15, 2006 at 14:21

Jeffreyb claims that the Mosaic "Thou shalt not Murder" is akin to this 'commandment' from the Quran:

6 "....anyone who murders any person who had not committed murder or horrendous crimes, it shall be as if he murdered all the people." (5:32)

Here is the problem summed up in a nutshell. In Judaism, and henceforth Christianity, we are forbidden to murder. period. Notice the escape clause in the Quran- 'anyone who murders someone who had NOT COMITTED MURDER OR HORRENDOUS crimes- this is the key point. Then it is permissible to murder someone who HAS committed murder or HAS committed 'horrendous crimes'. These 'horrendous crimes' can be completely subjective and can be used to justify the murder of anyone if the Muslims consider them in this category (i.e. westerners 'stole' their land, westerners did whatever they come up with).

So how can you claim that there is moral equivalence between Islam, forbidding murder with strings attached, to Judaism (and Christianity) which forbid murder under ANY circumstance??

I find it highly amusing that whenever I hear Muslims quote this verse, they conveniently leave out the first part (the conditions) and only quote the last sentence...

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