To Muslim on Islam is for all

Submitted by Plato (United Arab Emirates), Jan 24, 2007 at 07:24

Muslim you say: "...this aya is about other messengers who were mentioned in the Quran..." Let me ask you a simple question, Muslim, why does the all-knowing Koran not mention any messengers outside the the Asian part of the Middle East? Since Allah says these messengers' messages were partly concealed by the Jews and Christians the Koran was sent down as the final revelation.

Now the Middle East is not the only place on earth populated by humans. There is China, India, Lapland and so on. Since nothing is mentioned in the Koran about messengers to these people would I be correct in assuming that the scriptures they believe in have not been edited or corrupted. So why did Arabs go and preach their religion in those places? Your holy book time and again says messengers were sent to all people and the only messages the Koran claims were edited were the ones given to the jews and Christians. This revelation of sending of Mohammed to all people occurs only in once place but sending messengers to all races in mentioned in at least three ayas.

You have again trotted out the context thing. I took the trouble of going through the Surah. It is mostly about Moses and only strengthens the point that all people have been sent their own messngers. For what it is worth, my take on this aya is that it trying to convince the Arabs that just as God had sent a messenger to the Jews, so now god had sent a messenger to the Arabs, Mohammed.

Merely your repeating that Islam is for ALL does not make it so, especially as the Koran repeatedly stresses that Allah sends messengers in the language of the people. Muslim, why can't Muslims accept the fact that the Koran stresses again and again in 26:192-195, 41:44 that it is an Arabic Koran meant for the Arabs as made clear by 35:24. 10:47, 28:75 which say messengers have been sent to all people. Why don't you believe the Koran? Search through all those verses and come up with the contexts which will clearly indicate that the Koran is for all races as against the solitary verse you quote.

The only way you can wriggle out of the situation is by saying that Surah 7 was revealed later (true) than all those other verses and so abrogates them. If you allow that then a pandora's box of abrogations will be opened up. So which is it, abrogations galore or Islam is meant only for Arabs?

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".