Argument from: But the Arabs used to say in hadhan lasahiran then it must be correct

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Dec 19, 2012 at 07:58

Our dear And al-Rahman wrote this

I seriously am not free to reply to everything and though I asked you to check it yourself because it exists all around the internet you wanted to hear it from me

So can you tell me your source from the internet? Hint: gobbledygook pontification on Arabic language grammar by tablighees aka Pakistanis and the likes will not be accepted as evidence

The following will be accepted as evidence

1. al-Tabari's tafseer

2. Ibn kathir's tafseer

3. al-Suyuti's tafseer

The following will not be accepted as evidence

1. The moron el-Shiekh el-Heweni says so

2. Zakir Naik says so

"In hadhan lasahiran", there are many faces of grammetical use for this sentence and here are 3 of them

Hello: before you explain anything why not tell us the following

1. What is the rasm of the words in hadhan lasahiran

2. How do we find it in the 1923-1924 Cairo Qur'an

3. What does Ibn Kathir says or even better that does al-Tabari says about the structure of al-jumla

Now it is your chance to shine Oh I forgot you are busy right?

1- the word "in" is for confirmation and the it's pronoun is "mansoob belalef" as they it was used in the old poets at the days of the Prophet Muhammed (PBUH) and afterwards specifically the tribe ofHarith Ibn Ka'b where they used to "yolzem almothana belalef" in all cases as in the next verse of poem for the poet Howayir Alharithy

تزود منا بين أذناه طعنة *** دعته إلى هابي التراب عقيم

where the underlined word (Mothana) should have been "magroora belya' " but instead it was obligated to use the " alef " instead so it works fine

Oh this is called by al-Tabari as well as Ibn kathir: "in some dialects of B. Kinaana and B. Harith the dual (al-muthana) is expressed by alif in all three cases."

Right? do you know what this means?

1. It means that in hadhan lasahiran is a mistake as it should be in hadhayne lasahiran

2. And to justify this mistake they tell us it is the Arabic of some Arabs who are clrealy not aware of proper Arabic and had no clue about in wa akhawatiha

3. It also means that in wa akhwatiha as a grammatical rule has no value so is that true our dear Abd al-Rahman?

4. It also means that the Qur'an is not the words of Allah but of Arabs that had no clue about proper Arabic so is that true our dear Abd al-Rahman?

5. It also means that Allah used poor Arabic uttered by Arabs that spoke poor Arabic and how come you tell us

6. And when nothing works they blame al-sha3ir but you know what? Taha Husein proved beyond doubt that almost all of al-Shi3r al-gahili was made up to justify the grammatical mistakes in the Qur'an and say if al-shu3ara said it this way then it must be correct and if this is not stupid then I have no clue that is really stupid

I already posted Ibn kathir's tafseer for you to read instead of reading nonsense written by ignorant Pakistanis

And when we are done with number one we will move on the next flawed explanation

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