Motke: This time ܦܘܪܩܢܐ read by Muslims as الفرقان or al-Fuqan (Surat al-Furqan)

Submitted by dhimmi no more, Jun 1, 2019 at 08:37

Hi Motke,

You wrote

> More? al-Mufasereen tell us that the
> word امي means: unlettered when in fact
> the word امي must be a loan word from Syriac
> [meaning] non Jewish and non Christian

>Do you mean that "Muhammad is ummi" was originally meant to say that he's to be regarded as a prophet belonging to non Jewish/Christian nations? (And that therefore Muslims shouldn't try to convert them?)

The Qur'an makes it very clear that the prophets must belong to Israel (Jacob) and Muhammad is called الرسول النبي الامي or the messenger the prophet al-Ummi but al-Mufasereen had no clue what the word Ummi really means. If you check Q96:1 it says Read in the name of your Lord. So how can Muhammad be Ummi or ignorant/illiterate? You will not get a straight answer.

Wansbrough believes that the Arabic word Ummi is from Hebrew (as well as Syriac and Aramaic) 'Am HaAretz or the non Jews and non Christians

>That'd be a very nice idea! (and it'd concur with the concept of "أهل الكتاب".)

Well which book are we talking about here? remember that Muhammad and his God believe that the Jews and Christians corrupted their books

BTW are you familiar with the Jewish Arabic word 'Ateq? In Arabic it is Naql or tahweel and this is what Muhammad accused both Jews and Christians with

More disasters? Allah claims that he is the author of the Bible! So the question is: Where can we find a copy of Allah's uncorrupted Bible? But again more Islamic delusions

>(BTW, the other day I watched a video in which a "Quranic Muslim" derided the notion that Muhammad was unlettered.)

Welcome to the world of Islam!

‎> امي must be a loan word from Syriac
> (as well as Hebrew. No?) ܥܡܡܐ or 'Amma
> [mean] non Jewish and non Christian

>Hebrew has both ء-M-M and ع-M-M, with the basic meaning of "nation, people". These words mean "non Jews" in certain phrases. E.g., the Talmud mentions a few non-Jewish prophets: "Seven prophets prophesized to the /ummot/ of the world: Balaam, Job, ...". Looking at this sentence, your theory doesn't seem to be far fetched. Perhaps the term was used by the early Muslims, who knew enough Jewish theology, to lend legitimacy to Muhammad's prophesying (as if saying: "He was sent to preach for the /ummot/, for the benefit of the world at large, so you Jews should regard him favorably").

Now back to the word ܦܘܪܩܢܐ (Purqana in Syriac and Aramaic and Purqan in Hebrew) and the Quranic Arabic version of the word الفرقان. The disaster here is al-Mufasereen had no clue what the word الفرقان really means

Logic dictates that Muhammad must have understood the meaning of the word as: Salvation but by the 3rd century of Islam the meaning was lost! And why is that? We just do not know!

Next? Editing of the Qur'an in the 3rd century by al-Tabari and his Masoretic tafsir

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