Motke: The origin of Quranic Arabic

Submitted by dhimmi no more, Jun 3, 2019 at 06:43

Hi Motke, You wrote:

>As happy as I am bashing Arabs & Arabic with you, I'm afraid we're standing on the wrong side of "the world of academia"

You need to read Wansbrough's views on the origin of Classical Arabic. You see Muslims and sad enough to say Western scholars of Arabic tell us that it goes as follows: Classical Arabic ----> Quranic Arabic when in actual fact it is the exact opposite or Quranic Arabic -----> Classical Arabic a language that no one ever spoke. It is a language invented by Persian Mufasereen that were not even Arabs.

We do not have enough Arabic texts prior to Islam to get us to understand what real Arabic was like. We are only left with an opaque revelation called the Qur'an and what non Arabs (Persians) tell us about the language of so called Quraish in distant Mecca some 300 years after the death of Muhammad

And indeed this explains very well why would Muhammad not correct the most celebrated mistakes in the Qur'an ان هذان لساحران and ما هذا بشرا but in the 3rd century of Islam they become grammatical errors by the standards of the grammar of Classical Arabic. Also the meaning of the word Furqan (Q25) and Sakina would have been understood by Muhammad but the meaning was lost 200-300 years after his death

We just do not know. Wansbrough believed that proper examination of the Chancery papyri written during the reign of the Umayyads could shed light on the real Arabic language spoken by Muhammad. And I would add without contamination of the language by the Persian mufasereen

Would this ever happen? I doubt it.

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