omnipotence and indivisibility

Submitted by P R Goodfellow (United Kingdom), Mar 6, 2008 at 14:26

you are actually correct pointing out the obvious flaw in my statement, particularly, if you ignore the second attribute - indivisibility! of course, if the monotheistic god is omnipotent, then the concept of god bearing a child is surely not impossible.

however, if that god is indivisible, then there is no need for creating 'a child' which would have to share god's attrubutes, as sharing would make the same god's powers divisible.

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